Apparently, the
West was able to move into the era of Industrial Revolution by doing away with its caste system -- literally by killing off all the lower castes, so that the upper castes could replace them all. Ah, so India may be lagging the West in industrialization, but has avoided these 'shortcuts'. What will our Marxists say of India's upper castes, who weren't quite this cutthroat?
6 comments:
i clicked on the link u gave. failure to reproduce doesnt necessarily mean being killed off. Why jump to such flashy, sensational conclusions like "West Did Away With Lower Castes (by killing them off)," in ur endless attempts to find some justifications for India's endless problems and to prove that Indians are the best, the kindest & the noblest, etc etc.
Kindly read the nytimes link again, there is no mention of any mass low class genocide as u imply.
And look, blaming the West or Muslims, Chinese or extra terrestrials is not going to solve this country's problems!!!
I, too, fail to see any link between the headline on the blog and the summary of the article.
The Industrial Revolution was jump started by slave labor and appropriation of wealth from India.
When a section of the society fails to reproduce it cannot be just a biological defect. It has to be perpetuated by someone. In this case it seems British upper class that made this happen. So the title perfectly makes snese.
I find a few flaws in the article.
Let us say there were 80% poor and 20% rich. With poor people dying off the population of Europe would fall to 20%. Did it happen?
On the other extreme if there were 20% poor only, evidently the gains in productivity would not be so great.
To over come the popultaion drop rich people would reproduce by their own birth rate+death rate of poor- nearly 1: 5 compared to before
Oops, meant to say sense.
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